### Why is the Riemann Hypothesis true?

* “We must know; we shall know.” — David Hilbert*.

**“When the solution is simple, GOD is answering.” — Albert Einstein.**

**Riemann Hypothesis states that the real part of all nontrivial zeros, **

**s = a ± b * i, **

**of the Riemann zeta function equals one-half (a = 1/2) where **

**Re(s = a ± b * i) = a,**

**and ****where the Riemann zeta function is ****Σ 1/k^s (from k = 1 to k = ∞).**

**Reference links:**

**Why is the Riemann Hypothesis true?;**

**Subtle relations: prime numbers, complex functions, energy levels and Riemann;**

**150 Years of Riemann Hypothesis;**

**Turing and the Computational Tradition in Pure Mathematics (http://www.computing-conference.ugent.be/file/16).**

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**“… deepest interrelationships in analysis are of an arithmetical nature.” — Hermann Minkowski.**

**In the simplest sense, the Riemann Hypothesis (RH) confirms for all positive integers, k > 1,**

**there exists a prime, p, which divides k such that either**

**p = k**

**or**

**p ≤ k^( 1/2 = a = Re(s = a ± b * i) )**

**where s is the nontrivial zero of the Riemann zeta function.**

**Furthermore, only s + s’ = 1 over 0 ≤ a ≤ 1 satisfies the divergent Euler zeta function (Harmonic Series) for which there exists infinitely prime numbers (see Euler’s proof) where a = 1/2. **

**Hence, ****s = 1/2 + b * i and s’ = 1/2 – b* i ****are the only nontrivial zeta zeros of the Riemann zeta function in the interval, 0 ≤ a ≤ 1.**

**Note: s = a + b * i and s’ = a – b* i are the nontrivial zeta zeros of the Riemann zeta function in the interval, 0 ≤ a ≤ 1.**

**Therefore, the answer is affirmative.**

**The Riemann Hypothesis is true!** — **David Cole.**

**“If you can’t explain simply, you don’t understand it well enough.” — Albert Einstein.**

**Reference Links**:

**What is the correct proof of the famous and important Polignac Conjecture?.**

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